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Difference between revisions of "Question: Does the repudiation of a doctrine that was once taught by a prophet mean that that prophet is now considered a "heretic"?"
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[[es:Pregunta: ¿Significa eso que el profeta es ahora considerado un "hereje" el repudio de una doctrina que una vez fue enseñado por un profeta?]] | [[es:Pregunta: ¿Significa eso que el profeta es ahora considerado un "hereje" el repudio de una doctrina que una vez fue enseñado por un profeta?]] | ||
[[pt:Pergunta: A rejeição a uma doutrina que fora antes ensinada por um profeta significa que aquele profeta é agora considerado um "herege?"]] | [[pt:Pergunta: A rejeição a uma doutrina que fora antes ensinada por um profeta significa que aquele profeta é agora considerado um "herege?"]] | ||
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Revision as of 20:33, 12 April 2024
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Question: Does the repudiation of a doctrine that was once taught by a prophet mean that that prophet is now considered a "heretic"?
If a doctrine that was once taught by a past prophet is rejected by a later prophet, we do not consider the earlier prophet to be a "heretic": We simply consider him to be human
Certain doctrines that applied to 19th-Century and 20th-Century Latter-day Saints were indeed later repudiated. If a doctrine that was once taught by a past prophet is rejected by a later prophet, we do not consider the earlier prophet to be a "heretic": We simply consider him to be human. For example, Brigham Young taught Adam-God and "blood atonement," yet we do not today consider Brigham to be a heretic. We simply disregard those teachings which have been repudiated. Any Latter-day Saint who attends church will be fully aware that Brigham Young is not considered to be a heretic.
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