Difference between revisions of "Question: Since first wives were generally to grant permission for sealings to subsequent wives, did Joseph's later sealing to Emma mean that Emma no longer held the role of "first wife"?"
m (RogerNicholson moved page [[Question: Since first wives were generally to grant permission for sealings to subsequent wives, did Joseph's later sealing to Emma (after some of his plural marriages) mean that Emma no longer held the role of "first wife"?...)
(No difference)

Revision as of 18:57, 2 May 2017

  1. REDIRECTTemplate:Test3

Question: Since first wives were generally to grant permission for sealings to subsequent wives, did Joseph's later sealing to Emma mean that Emma no longer held the role of "first wife"?

If the wife of the person who holds the keys to plural marriage rejects plural marriage, her husband is to follow the commands of God to him without her permission

Joseph's revelation in D&C 132 explicitly states that if the wife of the person who holds the keys to plural marriage rejects plural marriage, her husband is to follow the commands of God to him without her permission.

Main article: Hiding plural marriage from Emma, and the Law of Sarah
See also Brian Hales' discussion
Sometime in 1840 Joseph Smith first broached the topic of plural marriage privately to trusted friends. Most of the apostles were in England and thus were unavailable for an introduction to the practice.
Joseph's first foray into plural marriage was deeply painful for Emma, his first wife.
It is impossible to definitively determine when Emma learned of Joseph’s plural marriages. However, many historical clues help to create a possible timeline.
The earliest documentable date for Emma’s awareness of time-and-eternity plural marriage is May of 1843, when she participated in four of her husband’s polygamous sealings.
Emma’s resistance to plural marriage prompted Hyrum to encourage Joseph to dictate a written revelation on the subject.
Rather than generating Emma’s active support, the revelation [D&C 132] appears to have brought a smoldering crisis to flame. She and Joseph took serious counsel together with some sort of agreement being negotiated.

To see citations to the critical sources for these claims, [[../CriticalSources|click here]]

Notes

Retrieved from "https://www.fairlatterdaysaints.org/answers/index.php?title=Question:_Since_first_wives_were_generally_to_grant_permission_for_sealings_to_subsequent_wives%2C_did_Joseph%27s_later_sealing_to_Emma_mean_that_Emma_no_longer_held_the_role_of_%22first_wife%22%3F&oldid=154621"