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< Mormon ordinances | Baptism
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The authors again impose their own beliefs on this scripture. As with Luke 3:3, no Bible translations were found to justify their conclusion that a remission of sins preceded baptism here. We are told that following this first sermon: "they that gladly received his word were baptized and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls." {{ref|fn12}} Why would so many be baptized if this was only an optional ordinance? Our authors infer that if baptism were essential, Peter should preach baptism in every recorded sermon he gave, but what if these sermons are only brief summaries? What if he did preach baptism and this concept was just not included in these 15 verses because a new concept was being emphasized in this chapter? We can go too far using assumptions to justify our beliefs and the authors seem to be doing just that. Their conclusions are built on flimsy assumptions and very little if any scholarship. It is apparent that the authors have made up their minds on this issue and are desperately searching for reasons why the obvious meaning of these passages must be wrong. | The authors again impose their own beliefs on this scripture. As with Luke 3:3, no Bible translations were found to justify their conclusion that a remission of sins preceded baptism here. We are told that following this first sermon: "they that gladly received his word were baptized and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls." {{ref|fn12}} Why would so many be baptized if this was only an optional ordinance? Our authors infer that if baptism were essential, Peter should preach baptism in every recorded sermon he gave, but what if these sermons are only brief summaries? What if he did preach baptism and this concept was just not included in these 15 verses because a new concept was being emphasized in this chapter? We can go too far using assumptions to justify our beliefs and the authors seem to be doing just that. Their conclusions are built on flimsy assumptions and very little if any scholarship. It is apparent that the authors have made up their minds on this issue and are desperately searching for reasons why the obvious meaning of these passages must be wrong. | ||
===Other biblical data=== | ===Other biblical data=== | ||
− | The authors continue to nitpick {{b||Acts|22|16}}, {{b||Romans|6|3-4}}, {{b||Colossians 2|12-13}}, and {{b||Romans|3|18-20}} in the same manner. We will here only note that there are many more scriptures that could be cited on this subject ({{b||Matthew|28|19}}; {{b||Mark|1|4}}; {{b||Luke|7|30}}; {{b||Acts|8|12}}, {{b||Acts|10|48}}, {{b||Acts|16|33}}, and {{b||Acts|19|2-6}}; {{b||Hebrews|6|2}}; and {{b|1|Peter|3|21}}, to cite just a few) and which the authors ignore. | + | The authors continue to nitpick {{b||Acts|22|16}}, {{b||Romans|6|3-4}}, {{b||Colossians|2|12-13}}, and {{b||Romans|3|18-20}} in the same manner. We will here only note that there are many more scriptures that could be cited on this subject ({{b||Matthew|28|19}}; {{b||Mark|1|4}}; {{b||Luke|7|30}}; {{b||Acts|8|12}}, {{b||Acts|10|48}}, {{b||Acts|16|33}}, and {{b||Acts|19|2-6}}; {{b||Hebrews|6|2}}; and {{b|1|Peter|3|21}}, to cite just a few) and which the authors ignore. |
One LDS author noted: | One LDS author noted: | ||
:Scripture strictly associates the ordinance of baptism with the washing away of impurities or sins. John the Baptist affirmed this link by preaching "the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins" ({{b||Mark|1|4}}; {{b||Luke|3|3}}). Some Christians have tried to indicate that John's baptism was somehow different from later Christian baptisms, but this is contradicted by the scriptures and later authoritative statements. Peter instructed new converts on the day of Pentecost to "Repent, and be baptized, every one... in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins" ({{b||Acts|2|38}}). Paul was likewise commanded of Ananias to "be baptized and wash away [his] sins" ({{b||Acts|22|16}}).{{ref|fn14}} | :Scripture strictly associates the ordinance of baptism with the washing away of impurities or sins. John the Baptist affirmed this link by preaching "the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins" ({{b||Mark|1|4}}; {{b||Luke|3|3}}). Some Christians have tried to indicate that John's baptism was somehow different from later Christian baptisms, but this is contradicted by the scriptures and later authoritative statements. Peter instructed new converts on the day of Pentecost to "Repent, and be baptized, every one... in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins" ({{b||Acts|2|38}}). Paul was likewise commanded of Ananias to "be baptized and wash away [his] sins" ({{b||Acts|22|16}}).{{ref|fn14}} | ||
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They never address why someone "that believeth not" would ever want to be baptized. Of course anyone who does not believe would never consider baptism. It's obvious that the authors believe this argument totally destroys the necessity of baptism in regard to salvation, but their own logic is just as obviously flawed. | They never address why someone "that believeth not" would ever want to be baptized. Of course anyone who does not believe would never consider baptism. It's obvious that the authors believe this argument totally destroys the necessity of baptism in regard to salvation, but their own logic is just as obviously flawed. | ||
Paul likewise emphasized both the importance of water baptism and the authority to baptize in {{b||Acts|19|2-6}}. Upon finding some disciples who were apparently baptized by an unauthorized individual, Paul rebaptizes them and lays his hands upon them to give them the gift of the Holy Ghost. If baptism were either optional or acceptable under any authority, rebaptism would not have been necessary in this circumstance. The disciples could have proceeded directly to confirmation (i.e. the laying on of hands for the gift of the Holy Ghost) if this were the case, but instead they were first rebaptized. | Paul likewise emphasized both the importance of water baptism and the authority to baptize in {{b||Acts|19|2-6}}. Upon finding some disciples who were apparently baptized by an unauthorized individual, Paul rebaptizes them and lays his hands upon them to give them the gift of the Holy Ghost. If baptism were either optional or acceptable under any authority, rebaptism would not have been necessary in this circumstance. The disciples could have proceeded directly to confirmation (i.e. the laying on of hands for the gift of the Holy Ghost) if this were the case, but instead they were first rebaptized. | ||
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===Evidence from early Christian authors=== | ===Evidence from early Christian authors=== | ||
====Ignatius==== | ====Ignatius==== |
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Critics argue that the LDS insistence on baptism as an essential ordinance of salvation is "unChristian" or "unbiblical."
Astonishing as it may seem given the prominence of baptism in the New Testament, some Christian groups deny the absolute necessity of baptism for salvation. This usually arises out of a conviction that baptism is "a work," and thus cannot play any necessary role in salvation.[1]
Those who hold such views usually provide a variety of proof-texts, and ignore other Biblical commands for baptism. We will look at examples of both below.
McKeever and Johnson write of this verse
None of the translations which we have consulted translate Luke 3:3 as the authors suggest it should be. Most all translations use "for" while a few use "unto" or "to the remission of sins." Latter-day Saints agree that a remission of sins only comes by repentance through the atonement of Jesus Christ and baptism itself is just a symbolic ordinance, but a necessary one nonetheless. It should be noted also that the authors make no comment on the fact that much of Christianity—including Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Churches—disagree with their view regarding the necessity of baptism.
The same authors comment on John 3:5-6:
The authors imply that Latter-day Saints de-emphasize the baptism of the Spirit but Joseph Smith taught that "The baptism of water, without the baptism of fire and the Holy Ghost attending it, is of no use; they are necessarily and inseparably connected." [4] The authors themselves seem to be ignoring the fact that Jesus said, "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." The "and" infers that both are necessary and connected. It is obvious that Nicodemus did not understand what the Lord was teaching him, but just 16 verses later John tells us, "After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized. And John also was baptizing." [5] To infer that baptism was a non-existent sacrament at this point seems unjustified. Notice that John 3:22 mentions Jesus and his disciples baptizing first while the other gospels mention John the Baptist baptizing first. It seems as though the Gospel of John is not as concerned with chronological accuracy at this point. Thus, whether the Lord's encounter with Nicodemus preceded or followed the start of John's preaching is unknown. These verses speak of baptism as if it is not something new—a concept critics who deny the necessity of baptism seem loathe to accept. The fact that none of the Gospels explains the ordinance of baptism and that the name "John the Baptist" is used by Matthew even before baptism is mentioned, seems to infer that baptism was not new. As to the necessity of baptism, it will be shown shortly that there are plenty of other scriptures which emphasize this requirement.
The authors comment on Acts 2:38:
The authors again impose their own beliefs on this scripture. As with Luke 3:3, no Bible translations were found to justify their conclusion that a remission of sins preceded baptism here. We are told that following this first sermon: "they that gladly received his word were baptized and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls." [7] Why would so many be baptized if this was only an optional ordinance? Our authors infer that if baptism were essential, Peter should preach baptism in every recorded sermon he gave, but what if these sermons are only brief summaries? What if he did preach baptism and this concept was just not included in these 15 verses because a new concept was being emphasized in this chapter? We can go too far using assumptions to justify our beliefs and the authors seem to be doing just that. Their conclusions are built on flimsy assumptions and very little if any scholarship. It is apparent that the authors have made up their minds on this issue and are desperately searching for reasons why the obvious meaning of these passages must be wrong.
The authors continue to nitpick Acts 22:16, Romans 6:3-4, Colossians 2:12-13, and Romans 3:18-20 in the same manner. We will here only note that there are many more scriptures that could be cited on this subject (Matthew 28:19; Mark 1:4; Luke 7:30; Acts 8:12, Acts 10:48, Acts 16:33, and Acts 19:2-6; Hebrews 6:2; and 1 Peter 3:21, to cite just a few) and which the authors ignore. One LDS author noted:
The scriptures clearly state that baptism is a commandment. Luke reports that "the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of [John]" (Luke 7:30). Peter also "commanded" the Gentiles "to be baptized in the name of the Lord" (Acts 10:48). And finally, the importance of this ordinance was emphasized by Christ in his last admonition to the eleven apostles to "Go… and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" (Matt. 28:19). If baptism was not essential, why then the command to baptize all nations? If baptism is for the remission of our sins and is a commandment, it must also be essential to salvation. The scriptures clearly affirms this: "The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us" (1 Peter 3:21). Paul affirms that Christ "saved us, by the washing of regeneration and the renewing of the Holy Ghost" (Titus 3:5) while adding that baptism is the appointed way to "put on Christ" (Gal. 3:27). The Savior also clearly taught the link between baptism and salvation. Mark concludes his gospel with the Savior's teaching that "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned" (Mark 16:16). The reader should note here that McKeever and Johnson make a very weak argument that,
They never address why someone "that believeth not" would ever want to be baptized. Of course anyone who does not believe would never consider baptism. It's obvious that the authors believe this argument totally destroys the necessity of baptism in regard to salvation, but their own logic is just as obviously flawed. Paul likewise emphasized both the importance of water baptism and the authority to baptize in Acts 19:2-6. Upon finding some disciples who were apparently baptized by an unauthorized individual, Paul rebaptizes them and lays his hands upon them to give them the gift of the Holy Ghost. If baptism were either optional or acceptable under any authority, rebaptism would not have been necessary in this circumstance. The disciples could have proceeded directly to confirmation (i.e. the laying on of hands for the gift of the Holy Ghost) if this were the case, but instead they were first rebaptized.
Ignatius of Antioch (AD ca. 35 or 50 to 98–117) wrote:
Tertullian, in the first century after the death of Christ, stated that "There is no difference whether one is washed in a sea or a pool, in a river or in a fountain, in a lake or in a channel: nor is there any difference between those whom John dipped in the Jordan, and those whom Peter dipped in the Tiber…We are immersed in the water." [11] (See Millennial Star, vol. XXI, pp. 769-770 or James E. Talmage, The Great Apostasy, p. 125) On the necessity of the ordinance of baptism, Tertullian, known as the first great Latin theologian of ancient Christianity, taught the 'sole necessary way' of obtaining Christ's protection against evil was through baptism. [12] (Jeffrey Burton Russell, Satan: The early Christian Tradition, [Ithaca, New York: Cornell University, Press, 1981], pp. 100-01). In fact it was universally believed in the Early Church that 'we obtain the benefits of Christ's sacrifice by baptism.'[13] ((Jeffrey Burton Russell, Satan: The early Christian Tradition, [Ithaca, New York: Cornell University, Press, 1981], p. 103).[14] Tertullian held that baptism was necessary for salvation (De bapt. 1:12-15; see also J.N.D. Kelly, Early Christian Doctrines, p. 209). He also suggested that children not be "baptized until they reached years of discretion" (De bapt. 1:18; J.N.D. Kelly, Early Christian Doctrines, p. 209). [15]
Justin Martyr (ca. AD 150) said the following regarding baptism:
Those who contend that baptism in water is not necessary have asserted that "born of water" implies only the necessity of physical birth from the water within the womb. Justin Martyr made it clear that this was not the true meaning of this verse in the Second Century AD. In describing his practice of the baptismal ceremony, he explains, "After [repentance] they are led by us to where there is water, and are born again in that kind of new birth by which we ourselves were born again. For upon the name of God, the Father and Lord of all, and of Jesus Christ, our Saviour, and of the Holy Spirit, the immersion in water is performed, because the Christ hath also said, 'Except a man be born again, he cannot enter into the kingdom of heaven'" (Dialogue with Trypho, xiv, l; see also The Great Apostasy, p. 125). [17]Thus, the early Christian Fathers understood that the "new birth" referred to baptism of water and not to one's physical birth. [18] Justin also confirmed that "no one was allowed to partake [of the sacrament] except one who believes…and has received the washing for forgiveness of sins and for rebirth" (First Apology of Justin, p. 66). [19]
Origen at about AD 220, taught baptismal candidates, "Go and repent, catechumens, if you want to receive baptism for the remission of your sins…. No one who is in a state of sin when he comes for baptism can obtain the remission of his sins". [20] (Jean Danielou, Origin, p. 54, Comm. John, 2, 37; De Princ. 4, 3, 12; Hom. Ez. 1, 1).
Cyprian, bishop of Carthage in the middle part of the third century, stated that no one outside of the church could administer a valid baptism (Jeffrey Burton Russell, Satan: The early Christian Tradition, [Ithaca, New York: Cornell University, Press, 1981], p. 106). [21]
An early Christian document known as the Didache (The Teaching) states that baptism was the accepted rite of admission to the Church and "only those who have been baptized in the Lord's name" may partake of the sacrament. (Didache, 9:5; see also J.N.D. Kelly, Early Christian Doctrines, pp. 193-211). [22]
J.N.D. Kelly also notes that Clement of Alexandria, Origen, and Hippolytus believed that baptism was very important. "Clement of Alexandria speaks of baptism as imparting regeneration, enlightenment, divine sonship, immortality, [and] remission of sins [where] sonship…is the result of regeneration worked by the Spirit" (J.N.D. Kelly, Early Christian Doctrines, p. 207; Paed. 1, 6, 26). Origen insisted on penitence, sincere faith, and humility "as prerequisites to baptism as well as gradual transformation of the soul (Ibid., p 208; Hom. in Lev. 6, 2; Luc. 21; Ex. 10; 4). Hippolytus associated the remission of sins and reception of the Spirit with baptism (Ibid., p. 208; trad. apost. 22, 1).[23]
McKeever and Johnson conclude their arguments with the following bewildering assertion: "It needs to be remembered that baptism, like partaking of the Lord's Supper, is a work. It is something that an individual must personally perform. As such, it is not a requirement for receiving salvation under the guidelines of Ephesians 2:8-9."[24] By this same logic, we must exclude "calling on the name of the Lord" and repentance as requirements for salvation as well, since these are both "works" "that an individual must personally perform." Are the authors serious about this?
Modern scriptures also confirm the role of baptism in the remission of sins (Alma 6꞉2; DC 13; DC 55꞉1-2; DC 68꞉27; DC 84꞉64, DC 74; DC 138꞉33; JS-H 1꞉69), though the actual cleansing is accomplished through Christ's atonement (Mosiah 3꞉11, Mosiah 18; Alma 7꞉14; DC 20꞉37; DC 76꞉41,69; Moses 6꞉59and reception of the Holy Ghost.[25]
Clearly, the Biblical data and early Christians are unanimous that baptism was regarded as an essential commandment. Baptism manifests an inner state of faith in and repentance through Christ. The physical act does not save, but one cannot be saved without it.
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Summary: Do the Early Church Fathers and other post-Biblical documents shed any light on the apostasy?
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Summary: Do other Christian denominations believe that no other church on earth is complete, or is this an arrogant belief assumed only by the "Mormons"?
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Summary: If there were some people who would have accepted the Gospel as taught in Mormonism, why did God allow the earthly Church to pass from the earth?
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Summary: What does the apostasy doctrine mean with respect to the relationship of The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints to other branches of Christianity?
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