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Did the papyri simply serve as a catalyst to prompt such a revelation?
This theory assumes that the Book of Abraham was not on the papyri; he received the text by revelation, with the papyri acting as a catalyst. This is a possibility because Joseph used the word "translation" to mean several things, including the process of receiving pure revelation. (Joseph Smith's revelations call his revision of the Bible a "translation" (D&C 73꞉4; 76꞉15; 90꞉13; 94꞉10; 124꞉89), even though he didn't use any Hebrew of Greek manuscripts. Also, D&C 7 is a revealed translation of a lost record written by the Apostle John.)
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