Difference between revisions of "Plural marriage/In Latter-day Saint scripture"

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|subject=1835 Doctrine and Covenants denies polygamy (D&C 101)
 
|subject=1835 Doctrine and Covenants denies polygamy (D&C 101)
 
|summary=The 1835 edition of the D&C contained a statement of marriage which denied the practice of polygamy. Since this was published during Joseph Smith's lifetime, why might the prophet have allowed it to be published if he was actually practicing polygamy at that time?
 
|summary=The 1835 edition of the D&C contained a statement of marriage which denied the practice of polygamy. Since this was published during Joseph Smith's lifetime, why might the prophet have allowed it to be published if he was actually practicing polygamy at that time?
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|sublink1=Question: Why did the 1835 Doctrine and Covenants include a statement of marriage that denied the practice of polygamy at a time when some were actually practicing it?
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|sublink2=Question: Was Oliver Cowdery aware that some in the Church were practicing polygamy in 1835 at the time he authored the "Article on Marriage"?
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|sublink3=Question: Was the practice of polygamy general knowledge among Latter-day Saints in 1835 when the "Article on Marriage" was published?
 
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Revision as of 16:57, 18 April 2017

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Polygamy in Latter-day Saint scripture


Polygamy in Latter-day Saint scripture


1835 Doctrine and Covenants denies polygamy (D&C 101)

Summary: The 1835 edition of the D&C contained a statement of marriage which denied the practice of polygamy. Since this was published during Joseph Smith's lifetime, why might the prophet have allowed it to be published if he was actually practicing polygamy at that time?

Book of Mormon condemns the practice

Summary: Critics of Mormonism use the Book of Jacob to show that the Book of Mormon condemns the practice of polygamy. Critics go on to claim that Joseph Smith ignored this restriction by introducing the doctrine of plural marriage.

Does the fact that Joseph Smith did not "multiply and replenish the earth" through his plural wives contradict a commandment given in Doctrine and Covenants 132:63?

Summary: Joseph Smith does not appear to have produced any children by his plural wives, except for Emma, yet, Doctrine and Covenants 132:63 states, "But if one or either of the ten virgins, after she is espoused, shall be with another man, she has committed adultery, and shall be destroyed; for they are given unto him to multiply and replenish the earth, according to my commandment, and to fulfil the promise which was given by my Father before the foundation of the world, and for their exaltation in the eternal worlds, that they may bear the souls of men." Why did Joseph practice polygamy, if it was not for the purpose of multiplying and replenishing the earth?