Doctrine and Covenants/Polygamy/Scriptures - Revision history

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	\|L1=Question: Why does Doctrine and Covenants 132 speak favorably about some Old Testament practitioners of plural marriage, while Jacob 2 is negative?		\|L1=Question: Why does Doctrine and Covenants 132 speak favorably about some Old Testament practitioners of plural marriage, while Jacob 2 is negative?

RogerNicholson at 04:42, 26 June 2017

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			[[de:Lehre und Bündnisse/Polygamie/Schriften]]

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	\|~~sublink2~~=Question: Since Joseph Smith "married" the wives of 11 other men, why were those women not "destroyed" as specified in the Doctrine and Covenants since they continued to live with their "previous" husbands?		\|L2=Question: Since Joseph Smith "married" the wives of 11 other men, why were those women not "destroyed" as specified in the Doctrine and Covenants since they continued to live with their "previous" husbands?
	\|~~sublink3~~=Question: Under what circumstances was Doctrine and Covenants Section 132 committed to writing?		\|L3=Question: Under what circumstances was Doctrine and Covenants Section 132 committed to writing?
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	\|sublink2=Question: Since Joseph Smith "married" the wives of 11 other men, why were those women not "destroyed" as specified in the Doctrine and Covenants since they continued to live with their "previous" husbands?		\|sublink2=Question: Since Joseph Smith "married" the wives of 11 other men, why were those women not "destroyed" as specified in the Doctrine and Covenants since they continued to live with their "previous" husbands?
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RogerNicholson at 06:21, 20 May 2017

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RogerNicholson at 15:32, 11 April 2017

2017-04-11T15:32:47Z

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	{{:Question: Why does Doctrine and Covenants 132 speak favorably about some Old Testament practitioners of plural marriage, while Jacob 2 is negative?}}		{{:Question: Why does Doctrine and Covenants 132 speak favorably about some Old Testament practitioners of plural marriage, while Jacob 2 is negative?}}
	{{:Question: Since Joseph Smith "married" the wives of 11 other men, why were those women not "destroyed" as specified in the Doctrine and Covenants since they continued to live with their "previous" husbands?}}		{{:Question: Since Joseph Smith "married" the wives of 11 other men, why were those women not "destroyed" as specified in the Doctrine and Covenants since they continued to live with their "previous" husbands?}}
			{{:Question: Under what circumstances was Doctrine and Covenants Section 132 committed to writing?}}
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RogerNicholson at 15:31, 11 April 2017

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			{{:Question: Since Joseph Smith "married" the wives of 11 other men, why were those women not "destroyed" as specified in the Doctrine and Covenants since they continued to live with their "previous" husbands?}}
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